BIOLOGY
1. Which of the following was the first virus isolated and studied under the electron microscope:
a. HIV
b. Rabies Virus
c. Pox viruses
d. TMV
2. The HIV genetic information flows from viral ___________, and used to form viral ______________.
a. RNA to DNA : RNA and protein
b. DNA to RNA : DNA and protein
c. DNA to RNA : RNA and protein
d. RNA to protein : RNA and protein
3. Reverse transcription, carried out by retroviruses, is the process by which?
a. RNA is duplicated
b. DNA is duplicated
c. RNA information is copied into DNA
d. DNA information is copied into RNA
4. Which of the following is NOT true about viruses?
a. Obligate intracellular parasite
b. Self replicating
c. Acellular
d. Uses host machinery
5. The quantitative study of energy relationship in a biological system is called?
a. Bioenergetics
b. Biochemistry
c. Biotechnology
d. Biophysics
6. Which of the following chemical activity is involved in the conversion of pyruvate into acetaldehyde during anaerobic respiration?
a. Reduction
b. Decarboxylation
c. Oxidation
d. Phosphorylation
7. In glycolysis, the conversion of Glucose-6-phosphate to Fructose-6-phosphate involves:
a. Phosphorylation
b. Oxidation
c. Isomerization
d. Reduction
8. Which of the following releases 7.3 Kcal energy when terminal phosphate is lost?
a. NADP
b. ADP
c. ATP
d. FAD
9. Which of the following is the best alternative term for ATP?
a. Ribonucleotide triphosphate
b. Ribonucleotide
c. Nucleoside triphosphate
d. Nucleotide
10. How many phosphate groups are present in nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
11. If an mRNA consists of 150 nucleotides, how many amino acids would be present in the polypeptide which is encoded by this mRNA?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 300
12. Glucose and Ribose form ring structures when :
a. React with an appropriate enzyme
b. Dissolved in water
c. Immersed in oil
d. They are in crystalline state
13. Most abundant organic compounds to be found in cells :
a. Proteins
b. Carbon
c. Nucleic acids
d. Lipids
14. The fibrous proteins are ___ in aqueous medium
a. soluble
b. insoluble
c. least soluble
d. readily soluble
15. At least, how many carbon atoms must be found in an amylose starch?
a. 7
b. 66
c. 70
d. Many thousands
16. Which of these cell organelles are involved in the synthesis of new plant cell walls?
a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi complex
d. Cell membrane
17. The protoplast of a plant cell does not include:
a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Vacuoles
d. Nucleus
18. In a eukaryotic cell, where are the proteins for electron transport chain located?
a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
c. Mitochondria
d. Cell membrane
19. Which cell organelle is incorrectly matched with its function?
a. Chloroplast – carbon fixation
b. Mitochondria – ATP synthesis
c. Cell membrane – cell recognition
d. Golgi apparatus – intracellular digestion
20. Which interactions are responsible for the formation of lipid bilayer in the watery environment of the body?
a. Hydrophobic interactions between fatty acid tails
b. Hydrophobic interactions between phosphate heads
c. Hydrophilic interactions between fatty acid tails
d. Hydrogen bonding between fatty acid tails
21. Which of the following is responsible for giving firmness and box-like shape to plant cells?
a. Cell wall
b. Cell wall and vacuole
c. Nucleus and vacuole
d. Cell membrane
22. Golgi complex was discovered by which scientist?
a. Robert Brown
b. Camillo Golgi
c. De Duve
d. Robert Hooke
23. The reflexes such as vomiting, coughing, and sneezing are controlled by which of the following?
a. Pons
b. Cerebrum
c. Cerebellum
d. Medulla oblongata
24. The disorder of the nervous system which occurs because of the disturbance of the supply of blood to the nervous system is called?
a. Muscular disorders
b. Vascular disorders
c. Functional disorders
d. All of these
25. The disorder in which the one or more muscle groups faces the full loss of function is called?
a. Cirrhosis
b. Angina
c. Epilepsy
d. Paralysis
26. Abnormal and excessive discharge of nerve impulses in the brain is called?
a. Cirrhosis
b. Angina
c. Stroke
d. Epilepsy
27. The disorder which is caused when cones cannot distinguish between different colors is called?
a. Short sighted vision disorder
b. Night blindness
c. Long sighted vision disorder
d. Color blindness
28. The photosensitive cells present in the retina that are sensitive to dim light are called?
a. Optical disc
b. Rods
c. Cones
d. Ligaments
29. Which of the following invertebrate phylum consists of the most abundant species on planet Earth:
a. Porifera
b. Cnidaria
c. Arthropoda
d. Mollusca
30. Which among the following lacks the nervous system
a. Flat worms
b. Annelida
c. Cnidaria
d. Sponge
31. Which statement correctly outlines the reason for divergent evolution hypothesis of echinoderms and hemichordates?
a. Blastopore forms the anus
b. They are both aquatic
c. They have a well-developed circulatory system
d. They have dorsal nerve cord
32. What is correct about triploblastic animals?
a. They all show bilateral symmetry.
b. They show radial as well as bilateral symmetry.
c. They are all protostomes.
d. They are all deuterostomes.
33. Which of the following react with enzyme at other than active site?
a. Activator
b. Coenzymes
c. Competitive inhibitor
d. End product inhibitor
34. An enzyme can :
a. Maintain the biochemical reaction
b. Decrease the biochemical reaction
c. Lower the need of activation energy
d. Be the substitute of activation energy
35. A non-protein chemical compound which is required for enzyme’s catalytic activity is?
a. Substrate
b. Co-factor
c. DNA
d. RNA
36. Which of the following is the optimum temperature for all enzymes to work in body?
a. 0 ⁰C
b. 15 ⁰C
c. 25 ⁰C
d. 37 ⁰C
37. What does the active site of the enzyme do?
a. Looks like a lump projection from the surface of an enzyme
b. Forms no chemical bond with substrate
c. Never changes
d. Determines by its structure the specificity of an enzyme
38. Which of the following is the major souce of variation in the origin of new species ?
a. Migration
b. Mutation
c. Selection
d. Genetic drift
39. According to Hardy-Weinberg theorem, the sum of recessive and dominant gene frequencies is equal to:
a. Gene pool of the the trait in the population
b. Population density
c. Total number of heterozygotes
d. Total number of homozygotes
40. Change in the frequency of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance is called:
a. Genetic drift
b. Mutation
c. Emmigration
d. Immigration
41. According to Hardy-Weinberg theorem, the sum of recessive homozygotes, dominant homozygotes and heterozygotes is equal to 1, what is represented by 1?:
a. Gene pool of the the trait in the population
b. Population density or total number of individuals in the population
c. Total number of heterozygotes
d. Total number of homozygotes
42. Which of the following nutrient is mainly provided by insects feeding to carnivorous plants?
a. Magnesium
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon
d. Oxygen
43. Chlorosis in plants is basically due to lack of:
a. Magnesium or nitrogen
b. Carbon or Hydrogen
c. Magnesium or Iron
d. Bright sunlight
44. Small insects fall into pitcher plant cannot climb out due to presence of:
a. Nutrients
b. Decomposers
c. Enzymes
d. Stiff hair
45. In sundew the leaves:
a. Form flask shaped structure
b. Bilobed structure with midrib
c. Have hair like tentacles
d. Have nodes
46. Vena-cava receives deoxygenated blood of kidney through :
a. Hepatic vein
b. Renal vein
c. Subclavian vein
d. Renal artery
47. Which is incorrect for cardiac muscles?
a. Show involuntary control
b. Branched cells
c. Have no striations
d. Have intercalated disc
48. The medium through which exchange of material between blood and cells occurs is
a. Interstitial fluid
b. Cytoplasm
c. Water
d. Lymph
49. Nitrifying bacteria belong to following group :
a. Chemosynthetic
b. Photosynthetic
c. Parasitic
d. Pathogenic
50. The chemical substances that are used to inhabit the growth of micro organism on living surfaces, are called:
a. Disinfectants
b. Chemotherapeutics
c. Vaccines
d. Antiseptics
51. Which of the following provides resistance against high temperature?
a. Cysts
b. Spores
c. Cell wall
d. Capsules
52. Photosythetic bacteria have the ability to release:
a. Sulphur
b. Oxygen
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon dioxide
53. For sterilization purpose, generally X-rays are used which cause:
a. Mutation in bacterial genome
b. Denaturation of bacterial proteins
c. Inactivation of bacteria
d. Bacteria to become pathogen
54. If the sperms are too weak to fertilize the egg in oviduct, which of the following procedure can be used to overcome this problem of infertility?
a. In vitro fertilization
b. Incubation
c. Hatching
d. Amniocentesis
55. When puberty is achieved in girls, which one of the following occurs in them but not in boys?
a. Excessive growth of hairs on skin
b. Pubic hair growth
c. Menarche
d. Heaviness of voice
56. Which one of the following occurs at puberty in boys?
a. Ovulation
b. Pubic hair growth
c. Hips broaden
d. Menarche
57. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by:
a. Hypothalamus
b. Pituitary gland
c. Thyroid
d. Parathyroid gland
58. The release of ovaum from ovary is called:
a. Lactation
b. Ovulation
c. Placentation
d. Menstruation
59. Which of the following is the separation point between two sarcomere?
a. H-zone
b. A-band
c. Z-line
d. M-line
60. Many sarcomere placed end to end and form a:
a. Muscle
b. Fiber
c. Myofibril
d. Muscle fiber
61. Cardiac muscles are the muscles of:
a. Aorta
b. Cornary vein
c. Heart
d. Liver
62. Which one of the following is the character of Cardiac Muscles?
a. Made up of unstrained and branched cells
b. Voluntary in action
c. Self excitatory or myogenic
d. Striated and unbranched
63. Physical appearance of a trait is called:
a. Genotype
b. Alleles
c. Phenotype
d. Genome
64. Homozygous dominants are represented with a :
a. Lower case letter
b. Roman numeral
c. Capital letter
d. Numerical value
65. The alternative form of a given gene is called:
a. Trait
b. Phenotype
c. Allele
d. Genotype
66. A man receives his X chromosome from:
a. His mother only
b. Part from his father and part from his mother
c. His father only
d. Either his mother or his father, it depends upon luck
67. “Which of the following is the most suitable term for the genotype “”AaBb”””
a. Homozygous recessive
b. Homozygous dominant
c. Heterozygous
d. Heterozygous dominant
68. A diseased man marries a normal woman They have five daughters and three sons All the daughters were diseased and sons were normal The gene of this disease is:
a. X-linked dominant
b. X-linked recessive
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Autosomal dominant
PHYSICS
69. The value of acceleration due to gravity:
a. Is same on equator and poles
b. Is least on poles
c. Is least on equator
d. Increases from pole to equator
70. In the absence of air resistance, an object thrown into the air at an angle of 20 degrees to the ground will experience:
a. Constant vertical acceleration
b. Changing vertical acceleration
c. Changing horizontal acceleration
d. Constant (non zero) horizontal acceleration
71. Ali punches a mattress and then punches a wall with the same force.
Why does Ali experience more pain while striking the wall?
a. The rate of change of momentum while striking the wall is lower
b. The rate of change of momentum while striking the wall is higher
c. The wall does not move
d. The mattress applies an equal and opposite force
72. Which of the following is true about newton’s laws of motion?
a. One of them is not related to forces
b. Two of them are not related to forces
c. All of them are related to forces
d. One of them is related forces
73. When body moves ___ always changes:
a. Velocity
b. Acceleration
c. Mass
d. Force
74. The projectile motion covers maximum range:
a. Horizontally
b. Vertically
c. Tangentially
d. Linearly
75. The engine of vehicle delivers constant power and moves up on the inclined plane, then its velocity:
a. Must remain constant
b. Must increase
c. Must decrease
d. Remains zero
76. 1 kilowatt = ________ Watts
a. 2000 watts
b. 1000 watts
c. 300 watts
d. 100 watts
77. The formula to estimate P.E is:
a. F.d
b. mgh
c. kx
d. mvr
78. The K.E of object at rest is:
a. Maximum
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. Constant
79. The direction associated with angular displacement is given by:
a. Left-hand rule
b. Head to tail rule
c. Right-hand rule
d. Fleming’s rule
80. An object travelling in a circle at 2 revolutions per second has an angular velocity of:
a. 12.9 rad/s
b. 13.3 rad/s
c. 12.6 rad/s
d. 14.6 rad/s
81. One complete revolution of an object covers _____ angle in degree
a. 180
b. 90
c. 360
d. 270
82. Earth revolution in 24 hours covers _____ angle:
a. 90
b. 60
c. 57.3
d. 360
83. Example of mechanical waves is:
a. Transverse wave
b. Longitudinal wave
c. Both transverse and longitudinal wave
d. Compressional waves
84. Microwave is:
a. An electromagnetic wave
b. Sound wave
c. Longitudinal wave
d. Standing wave
85. Pitch depends upon:
a. Frequency
b. Timbre
c. Loudness
d. Amplitude
86. The property of musical sound which differentiate between grave and shrill sound is called?
a. Pitch
b. Intensity
c. Beats
d. Quality
87. Pitch is __________ proportional to Frequency:
a. Directly
b. Inversely
c. Expoentialy
d. No effect
88. Water waves are:
a. Longitudinal waves
b. Complex waves
c. Transverse waves
d. Both longitudinal and transverse wave
89. The distance between two consecutive nodes of a stationary wave is:
a. λ
b. λ/2
c. λ/4
d. λ/6
90. Heat capacity is defined as ______ required to change the temperature of substance by ____
a. Momentum , 1 degree C
b. Heat, 1 degree C
c. Heat, 2 degree C
d. Work , 2 degree C
91. Molar heat capacity at constant volume is given by:
a. dQ/dV
b. dQ/dP
c. dU/dT
d. dU/dV
92. If Cp = 20 J/mol.K then for 1 mole gas we get Cv =——- . You can use Cp/Cv = 1.7.
a. 10.6 J/K.mole
b. 12.7 J/K.mole
c. 13 J/K.mole
d. 11.7 J/K.mole
93. The change in potential energy per unit charge between two points in an electric field is called:
a. Potential difference
b. Absolute potential
c. Electric intensity
d. Permittivity
94. The electric flux through the surface of the sphere is directly proportional to the
a. Surface area of the sphere
b. Radius of the sphere
c. Charge at the centre of the sphere
d. Nature of charge
95. Electric Flux through the surface of a sphere which has constant charge at its centre depends on:
a. The radius of the sphere
b. The surface area of the sphere
c. The amount of charge inside the sphere
d. The amount of charge outside the sphere
96. Change in P.E per unit charge in the electric field is:
a. Electric potential
b. Power
c. K.E
d. Work done
97. Electric Potential which is measured with respect to the zero potential is called:
a. Absolute electric potential
b. Change in K.E
c. Change in potential energy
d. Electric intensity
98. When a charge gets influenced by its surrounding, it has entered:
a. An electric field
b. A gravitational field
c. Thermal field
d. Closed field
99. The flux through a surface will be minimum when angle between E and ΔA is:
a. 90°
b. 60°
c. 30°
d. 0°
100. Electric current may be defined as:
a. Rate of flow of charge
b. Rate of flow of momentum
c. Rate of flow of power
d. Rate of flow of energy
101. _______ potential difference is required for establishing steady current?
a. Minimum
b. Constant
c. Maximum
d. Varying
102. Which equation represents the maximum output power of source?
a. P= VI
b. P = I^2 R
c. P = V^2/R
d. P = E^2/4R
103. ___________ relationship exists between current and voltage in terms of Ohm’s law:
a. Non linear
b. Varying
c. Linear
d. Alternating
104. SI Unit of current is ?
a. Ampere
b. Volt
c. Joules
d. Watt
105. The SI Unit for resistance is?
a. Ohm
b. Ampere
c. Watt
d. Volts
106. Magnetic field inside a long solenoid is:
a. Varying with radial distance
b. Uniform
c. Zero
d. Not enough information
107. Magnetic field outside of a long solenoid is:
a. Varying with radial distance
b. Uniform
c. Zero
d. Not enough information
108. When a bar magnet is broken from middle, the broken pieces will have:
a. North pole only
b. South pole only
c. Both south and north poles
d. Magnetism will be removed
109. Transformer can convert _____
a. Low DC voltage
b. High DC voltage
c. Battery voltage
d. AC voltage
110. Eddy currents flow in:
a. Open loops
b. Closed loops
c. Straight lines
d. Vertical loops
111. When coil is rotated in magnetic field, the current produced is:
a. Constant
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Continuously changing
112. In AC generator, AC current reverses its direction _____ times per second:
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60
113. AC generator converts_______ energy:
a. Mechanical to electrical
b. Electrical to mechanical
c. Electrical to heat
d. Heat to electrical
114. A full wave rectifier passes ___________into positive cycles:
a. lower half cycle
b. upper half cycle
c. both lower and upper half cycles
d. One quater cycle
115. When gamma photon is entered in nucleus it_____:
a. De-excite the nucleus
b. Excite the nucleus
c. Scatter by nucleus
d. No effect on nucleus
116. In annihilation process particles move in:
a. Same direction
b. Opposite direction
c. Perpendicular direction
d. Remain stationary
117. Photons of energy 10.25 eV fall on the surface of the metal emitting photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy 5.0 eV. What is the stopping voltage required for these electrons?
a. 10V
b. 8V
c. 5V
d. 4V
118. Blackbody shows a_________spectra:
a. Continuous
b. Discrete
c. Band
d. Line
119. Which radiation passes through black body:
a. Alpha
b. Gamma
c. Beta
d. White
120. In water pipes ____ is used to detect leakages:
a. Radioisotpe
b. Light
c. Current
d. Heat
121. The electromagnetic radiation which moves with high frequency will have ____ wavelength:
a. Short
b. Long
c. Unchanged
d. Variable
122. When electron absorbs a photon and jumps to higher states it is called:
a. De-excitation
b. Excitation
c. Emission
d. Conversion
CHEMISTRY
123. What is the mass in grams of 1.69 moles of phosphoric acid?
a. 148 g
b. 138 g
c. 157 g
d. 166 g
124. The amount of reactant according to the balanced chemical equation is called as?
a. Theoretical amount
b. Actual amount
c. Limiting amount
d. Stoichiometric amount
125. What mass is the mass of 2 dm³ of oxygen at S.T.P?
a. 1.42g
b. 2.22g
c. 3.2g
d. 2.85g
126. Mass of electron _____ times smaller than that of proton.
a. 1837
b. 1839
c. 1836
d. 1834
127. How many electrons does calcium has in 3p orbital?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 2
d. 3
128. How many electrons are present in the orbital having n=1, l=0, m= 0?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
129. Which subshells are present in M shell?
a. s
b. s,p
c. s,p,d
d. s,p,d,f
130. The value of general gas constant ‘R’ for a particular gas is indepedant of:
a. Pressure
b. Volume
c. Absolute temperature
d. Molar mass of the gas.
131. Which of the following postulate of kinetic molecular theory does not hold at high temperature and pressure?
a. Gases are considered to be composed of minute discrete particles called molecules.
b. The molecules move in straight line.
c. The pressure of gas is produced due to the collision of molecules with the wall of container.
d. The volume occupied by the gas molecules is negligible as compared to the the total volume of the gas.
132. Spreading of scent in the air is due to:
a. Diffusion of gas molecules
b. Effusion of gas molecules
c. Volume of gas
d. Temperatue of gas
133. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction ?
a. H₂O
b. H₂S
c. H₂Se
d. H₂Te
134. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction ?
a. H₂O
b. H₂S
c. H₂Se
d. H₂Te
135. Which of the following solid has indefinite heat of fusion?
a. Crystalline solids
b. Pure solids
c. True solids
d. Amorphous solids
136. The array of points which shows the atoms, ions or molecule arrangements in a crystal is called:
a. Crystal system
b. Crystal Lattice
c. Crystal array
d. Crystallography
137. What will happenes to the KClO₃ when KCl is added to its solution in water?
a. Its solubility increases
b. Its solubility decreases
c. concentration of Cl⁻ ion decreases
d. concentration of ClO₃⁻ ion increases
138. The pH of an acidic Buffer depends upon the concentration of acid, concnetration of salt and:
a. pka of acid used in it.
b. pH of acid used in it.
c. pkb of base used in it.
d. pOH of base used in it.
139. For a particular reversible reaction if, [Products]/[Reactants ]>Kc it means that:
a. More products are needed to attain equilibrium
b. There are more reactants in the system
c. More Reactants are needed to attain equilibrium
d. The reaction will move forward to attain equilibrium
140. The reaction in which rate depends only on one reactant concentrations, although more than one reactants are present in the reaction mixture is known as_____
a. 1st order reaction
b. 2nd order reaction
c. Pseudo first order reaction
d. Third order reaction
141. The rate law of a particular reaction is Rate = k[NO][O₃]. The order of this reaction with respect to ozone is:
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. zero
142. Which one of the following is the correct demonstration of first law of thermodynamics?
a. ∆H= qw
b. ∆H=q – ∆P∆V
c. ∆H=q + w
d. ∆E = q + w
143. In the air, N2 and O2 occur naturally but they do not react to form oxides of nitrogen because
a. oxides of nitrogen are unstable
b. catalyst is required for the reaction
c. the reaction is endothermic
d. N2 and O2 do not react with each other
144. Fe is precipitated out when Cu strip is dipped in
a. FeSO₄ solution
b. CuSO₄ Solution
c. MgSO₄ Solution
d. H₂SO₄ solution
145. Oxidation number of a substance in elemental form is:
a. 0
b. Positive
c. Negative
d. Fractional
146. The covalent compounds exhibit:
a. Fast reactions
b. Non-directional nature
c. Non-rigid structures
d. Isomerism
147. Pi (π) bond between two atoms is:
a. Formed by axial overlaping of atomic orbitals, and is stronger than sigma bond.
b. Formed by parallel overlaping of atomic orbitals, and is stronger than sigma bond.
c. Formed by axial overlaping of atomic orbitals, and is weaker than sigma bond.
d. Formed by parallel overlaping of atomic orbitals, and is weaker than sigma bond.
148. The amount of energy required to beak one mole of a particular type of bond is equal to its:
a. Activation energy
b. Ionization energy
c. Bond Energy
d. Potential energy
149. In alkali metals the highest shielding effect is exhibited by:
a. Li
b. Na
c. K
d. Rb
150. Shielding effect in 3rd period of periodic table:
a. Increases from left to right.
b. Decreases from left to right.
c. May increase or decrease
d. Remain unchanged
151. Which of the following has highest atomic size?
a. Be
b. Mg
c. Ca
d. Ba
152. Which one of the following is more soluble in water?
a. Be(OH)₂
b. Ca(OH)₂
c. Mg(OH)₂
d. Ba(OH)₂
153. The color of Zn²⁺ compounds is:
a. Yellow
b. Black
c. Blue
d. Colorless
154. The transition element which shows fixed 2+ oxidation state in its compound is:
a. Zn
b. Fe
c. Cu
d. Mn
155. Which of the following has anti knocking properties?
a. (CH₃CH₂)₄Sn
b. (CH₃CH₂)₄Pb
c. (CH₃CH₂)₄Ge
d. (CH₃CH₂)₄Si
156. Which of the following fraction of petroleum has lowest boiling point at STP.
a. Kerosine oil
b. Lubricating oil
c. Gasoline
d. Natureal gas
157. Conversion of straight chain hydrocarbons into branched chain is called as_______?
a. Reforming
b. Cracking
c. Isomerization
d. Decomposition
158. The termination step of the Halogenation of alkanes in the presence of sunlight involves the formation of:
a. Free radicals
b. Cations
c. Anions
d. Molecules
159. The C-C bond length in benzene is:
a. 1.39 Angstrom
b. 1.20 Angstrom
c. 1.34 Angstrom
d. 1.54 Angstrom
160. Benzene is more stable than hypothetical 1,3,5-cyclohexatriene by:
a. 150.5 kJ/mol
b. 150.5 J/mol
c. 150.5 kJ/molecule
d. 150.5 J/molecule
161. Halogenation of alkane in sunlight is the example of:
a. Addition reaction
b. Elimination reaction
c. Substitution reaction
d. Rearrangment reaction
162. Major product of the following reaction is: CH₂=CH-CH₂-CH₃ + HBr →
a. CH₂(Br)-CH₂-CH₂-CH₃
b. CH₃-CH(Br)-CH₂-CH₃
c. CH₂=CH-CH(Br)-CH₃
d. CH₂=CH-CH₂-CH₂(Br)
163. The correct name of CH₂Cl₂ is:
a. Methyl chloride
b. Methylene chloride
c. Chloroform
d. Carbonyl chloride
164. Which one of the following is a strong Nucleophile?
a. Cl-
b. Br-
c. OH-
d. HSO4-
165. 2-chlorobutane belongs to:
a. Primary Alkyl halides
b. Secondary Alkyl Halides
c. Tertiary Alkyl Halides
d. Quarternary Alkyl halides
166. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction
167. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction
168. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction
169. Idoform test is used to check the presence of :
a. Amines
b. Carbonyl compounds
c. Carboxylic acid
d. Alkyl halides
170. Acetone is less reactive than acetaldehyde due to:
a. More Steric hindrance offered by its methyl groups.
b. Electron withdrawing nature of its methyl groups.
c. Its Carbonyl carbon is sp² hybridized.
d. Oxygen of carbonyl group is more electronegative than carbon atom.
171. Formaldehyde reacts with which one of the following to give primary alcohols
a. Fehling’s reagant
b. Benedict’s Reagant
c. Grignard’s reagant
d. Millon’s reagant
172. Salts of carboxylic acids can be converted into corresponding carboxylic acid by treating with
a. water
b. base
c. acid anhydrides
d. acid
173. The flavour of amyl butyrate is:
a. Mango
b. Raspberry
c. Apricot
d. Orange
174. The basic hydrolysis of ethyl acetate produces?
a. Ethanol and sodium acetate
b. Ethanol and acetic acid
c. Ethanol
d. Formic acid
175. The following are anisotropic properties except:
a. Refractive index
b. Thermal conductivity
c. Electrical conductivity
d. Melting points
176. The properties which depends upon the direction are called:
a. Isotropic properties
b. Anisotropic properties
c. Additive properties
d. Colligative properties
ENGLISH
177. I don’t like doing ______, especially mopping the floor.
a. homework
b. house chores
c. house-job
d. jobs
178. When we were in Singapore last year, we ______ at a beautiful resort near an Island.
a. stayed
b. stopped
c. lived
d. left
179. Give her a break. It was not her ______ that the bus arrived late.
a. blame
b. error
c. crime
d. fault
180. The earth ______________ (seem) to be moving.
a. seem
b. seemed
c. seeming
d. seems
181. A white ball _____________ for the first time in the 1992 Cricket World Cup.
a. used
b. was used
c. had used
d. has been used
182. One day people __________ to Moon
a. travel
b. travelled
c. will travel
d. were travelling
183. Find the correctly spelt word
a. Sovereign
b. Soveregn
c. Soverean
d. Soverein
184. Choose the word wrongly spelt.
a. Semester
b. Senesent
c. Sensory
d. Salacious
185. She said that she was happy. Which type of narration is used here?
a. Indirect
b. Direct
c. Simple
d. Complex
186. I’ll show you a picture ____________ the palace.
a. off
b. of
c. in
d. at
187. You have to wait. He’ll be with you ____________ a minute.
a. in
b. on
c. at
d. of
188. He started learning English ____________ 2005.
a. in
b. on
c. at
d. through
189. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Racommend
b. Racomand
c. Recomend
d. Recommend
190. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Annehilate
b. Anihilate
c. Annihilate
d. Anehilate
191. Choose the correct spelling of the word
a. Bilding
b. Buillding
c. Building
d. Bulding
192. Which one is correct?
a. The people whom will help you find a job are here.
b. The people who will help you find a job are here.
c. The people who will help you find a job were here.
d. The people who will help you found a job are here.
193. Which one is correct?
a. You thought, I was going to, but I didn’t snatch people pocketbooks.
b. You thought, I was going to, but I didn’t snatch people’s pocketbooks.
c. You thought, I am going to, but I didn’t snatch people’s pocketbooks.
d. You thought, I was going to, but I don’t snatch people’s pocketbooks.
194. Which one is correct?
a. Let’s took ten-minute break before starting the next session.
b. Let’s take a ten-minute break before starting the next session.
c. Let’s take up a ten-minute break before starting the next session.
d. Let’s take out a ten-minute break before starting the next session.
LOGICAL REASONING
195. Statement: The local cooperative credit society has decided to stop giving loans to farmers with immediate effect. A large number of credit society members have withdrawn a major part of their deposits from the credit society.
a. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
b. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
c. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
d. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
196. Statement: Floods may create havoc in the country this year too. Courses of Action: I) The Government should be on the alert to evacuate flood-affected victims. II) People should not be afraid of floods.
a. Only I follows
b. Only II follows
c. Either I or II follows
d. Neither I nor II follows
197. “Pick the word which is always associated with “”books””.”
a. Pages
b. Learning
c. Pictures
d. Eraser
198. Pick the word which is always associated with: Electrical Energy.
a. Light
b. Cars
c. Power
d. Water
199. To approach this question, use a sentence: “A champion could not exist without ______.
Find the word that fits in.
a. Running
b. Swimming
c. Courage
d. Speaking
200. Statement: All scientists are fair. All fair people are strong. Conclusions: (I) All scientists are strong. (II) Some strong people are fair.
a. Only conclusion I is correct
b. Only conclusion II is correct
c. Either I or II is correct
d. Both I and II correct