PMC Mock Test 1

BIOLOGY

1. Which of the following is incorrect about viruses?
a. Viruses are intracellular parasites
b. Viruses can not attack upon prokaryotes
c. Viruses contain genetic information and have a capsid protein coat
d. Viruses cannot survive without a host

2. Poxviruses are:
a. Double stranded DNA virus
b. Single stranded RNA virus
c. Single stranded DNA virus
d. Protein virus

3. Which of the followin virus has complex capsid that consists of polyhedral head and helical tail?
a. Influenza virus
b. Herpes virus
c. Bacteriophages
d. Human Immuno Deficiency Virus

4. The viruses who can attack the bacteria are known as:
a. Retrovirus
b. Pox virus
c. Bacteriophage
d. Oncovirus

5. To reduce one molecule of O2, ________ electron(s) must be passed through the electron transport chain and ________ molecule(s) of NADH is(are) oxidized
a. 1; 1
b. 4; 4
c. 1; 2
d. 4; 2

6. Which of the following is the correct pathway of alcoholic fermentation?
a. Glycolysis –> Reduction
b. Glycolysis –> Reduction –> Decarboxylation
c. Glycolysis –> Decarboxylation –> Reduction
d. Glycolysis –> Link reaction –> Krebs cycle –> ETC

7. The initial steps in breaking down glucose are called:
a. Reduction
b. Glycolysis
c. Chemiosmosis
d. Oxidation

8. What is net gain of ATP in glycolysis if it occurs during anaerobic respiration:
a. 2 ATP/glucose molecule
b. 4 ATP/glucose molecule
c. 6 ATP/glucose molecule
d. 8 ATP/glucose molecule

9. The Tertiary structure of protein indicates its
a. chemical function
b. biological function
c. physical appearence
d. characteristics

10. Only one compound is neutral, other are reactive. Point the one
a. cytoplasm
b. HCl
c. Urine
d. Pure water

11. The temporary storage of energy in the human body is
a. cellulose
b. glycogen
c. ATP
d. Fats

12. The palmitic acid melt at___
a. 8 C
b. 72C
c. 63.1C
d. 7 C

13. Amylopectin ______ and insoluble in ______
a. branched sugar , water
b. unbranched sugar, ethnol
c. branched sugar, cold water
d. unbranched sugar, hot

14. Reducing sugar among the following is
a. galactose
b. gluconic acid
c. glycogen
d. sucrose

15. Cellulose is ______
a. hexose polysaccharide
b. heptose polysaccharide
c. heteropolysaccharide
d. pentosepolysaccharide

16. Which of the following is responsible for giving firmness and box-like shape to plant cells?
a. Cell wall
b. Cell wall and vacuole
c. Nucleus and vacuole
d. Cell membrane

17. Golgi complex was discovered by which scientist?
a. Robert Brown
b. Camillo Golgi
c. De Duve
d. Robert Hooke

18. Which of these is the right combination of molecules which make up the secondary cell wall in plant cells?
a. Cellulose, lignin and xylem
b. Cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin
c. Cellulose only
d. Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin

19. Which of the following is the system of elongated sac like structures (cisternae) or tubes linking the cell surface membrane and the nuclear envelope?
a. Mirotubules
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi complex
d. Microfilaments

20. Which one of the following can easily pass through plasma membrane
a. Fat soluble substances
b. Proteins
c. Highly charged materials
d. Polysacchrides

21. Major component of bacterial cell wall is:
a. Teichoic acid
b. Cartenoid
c. Chitin
d. Murein

22. Carbon dioxide passes through plasma membrane of cells by:
a. Active transport
b. Phagocytosis
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. Simple diffusion

23. Which part of the hind brain is responsible in regulating breathing patterns?
a. Medulla oblongata
b. Cerebellum
c. Brain stem
d. Pons

24. What is the change in the resting potential when a neuron fires a nerve impulse?
a. It becomes more negative moving from cell body to the axon
b. It becomes more positive moving from the cell body to the axon
c. It becomes more negative moving from the axon to the cell body
d. It becomes more positive moving from the axon to the cell body

25. When a neuron’s membrane potentials is between – 70 mV and – 90 mV, it is said to be in a state of:
a. Depolarization
b. Hyperpolarization
c. Repolarization
d. No polarization

26. Addison’s disease occurs because of under-secretion of which hormone?
a. Antidiuretic hormone
b. Aldosterone
c. Corticosterone
d. Melanophore-stimulating hormone

27. Function of insulin:
a. Promoting hydrolysis of glycogen
b. Increasing the rate of fat breakdown
c. Promoting conversion of glucose into protein
d. Reduces the blood glucose level

28. In terms of their effects on metabolism, all of them are mismatched except:
a. Secretin, gastrin, insulin
b. Secretin, gastrin, glucagon
c. Oestrogen, progesterone, oxytocin
d. Follicle stimulating hormone, somatotrophic hormone, adrenicorticotrophic hormone

29. Diffused nervous system is present in which animal group?
a. Platyhelminthes
b. Annelida
c. Cnidaria
d. Porifera

30. Saccoglossus belongs to which group of invertebrates?
a. Porifera
b. Cnidaria
c. Echindermata
d. Hemichordates

31. What is correct about triploblastic animals?
a. They all show bilateral symmetry.
b. They show radial as well as bilateral symmetry.
c. They are all protostomes.
d. They are all deuterostomes.

32. Which features identify deuterostomes?
a. Blastopore makes the mouth.
b. Zygote divides spirally.
c. Mesoderm forms from the developing gut.
d. Fate of each blastomere is pre-determined

33. What is correct about the active site of an enzyme?
a. It detaches itself from the product after catalysis
b. It is similar in shape to the substrate
c. It is involved in feedback inhibition
d. It is involved in irreversible, non-competitive inhibition

34. Optimum pH for salivary amylase is:
a. 2
b. 6.8
c. 7.6
d. 9

35. Optimum pH for salivary amylase is:
a. 2
b. 6.8
c. 7.6
d. 9

36. Enzymes have capacity to change the:
a. Concentration of substrate in the reaction system
b. Temperature of the reaction system
c. pH of the reaction system
d. Concentration of inhibitor

37. Catalysts that increase the rate of biological chemical reaction are called?
a. Proteins
b. Vitamins
c. Enzymes
d. Minerals

38. The origin of new species from already existing speies over a period of time is called:
a. Adaptation
b. Evolution
c. Neo-Darwinsm
d. Special creation

39. Homologous organs indicate the:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Co-evolution
d. Artificial selection

40. The variations in individuals that lead to evolution are because of differences in their:
a. Genes
b. Anatomy
c. Physiology
d. Acquired characters

41. Evolution is the process that demostrates:
a. How characters are pased from one generation the next
b. How organisms perform their activities in different environment
c. How new species originate from exisiting species.
d. How new species are formed specially and specifically by the nature

42. Which of the following enzyme is absent in pancreatic juice?
a. Amylase
b. Erepsin
c. Lipase
d. Trypsin

43. A condition characterized by bouts of over eating fattening food is called:
a. Anorexia
b. Botulism
c. Bulimia nervosa
d. Piles

44. Incomplete or imperfect digestion is called:
a. Anorexia
b. Botulism
c. Bulimia nervosa
d. Dyspepsia

45. The osmotic pressure of blood is maintained by:
a. Membrane proteins
b. Fibrous proteins
c. Plasma proteins
d. Myosin

46. Concentration of bile is the function of which body part?
a. Liver
b. Gallbladder
c. Pancreas
d. Stomach

47. Which one is a contagious disease?
a. Lung cancer
b. Asthma
c. Pulmonary tuberculosis
d. Emphysema

48. Which cells protect stomach wall by producing mucus?
a. Mucus cells
b. Chief cells
c. Zymogen cells
d. Endocrine cells

49. Which of the following is a circular, double stranded DNA molecules present in some bacterial cells?
a. Nucleiod
b. Plasmids
c. Mesosomes
d. Chromosomes

50. Which of the following provide resistance against some antibiotics such as beta lactam?
a. Gram negative cell wall
b. Spores
c. Slime
d. Capsules

51. A very delicate surrounding that may result in death of bacteria if damaged is called :
a. Capsule
b. Flagella
c. Cell membrane
d. Cell wall

52. Protein factories in prokaryotic cell are:
a. Mesosomes
b. Ribosomes
c. Plasmids
d. Nucleotide

53. During sterilization process, in order to control pathogens, we use dry heat which causes
a. Oxidations of bacterial compounds
b. Coagulation of bacterial proteins
c. Separate the bacteria from their media
d. Decrease in bacterial growth

54. Where does fertilization occur in human body?
a. Ovary
b. Uterus
c. Fallopian tube
d. Vagina

55. Proliferative phase is also termed as:
a. Secretory phase
b. Menstruations phase
c. Follicular or preovulatory phase
d. Secondary phase

56. The uterus of the female reproductive system opens into the?
a. Placenta
b. Ovary
c. Cervix
d. Oviduct

57. What is the function of the fluid secreted by Sertoli cells?
a. Stimulate spermatogenesis
b. Stimulates secondary sexual development.
c. Provides nourishment to sperms
d. Inhibit spermatogenesis

58. Which of the following is the part of male reproductive system?
a. Cervix
b. Leydig cells
c. Myometrium
d. Corpus luteum

59. Which of these is a type of arthritis that is primarily due to aging?
a. Septic arthritis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Rheumatoid and osteo arthritius

60. Septic arthritis is caused by:
a. Aging
b. Bacteria
c. Metabolic
d. Physical contact

61. What is meaning of articulation?
a. Connections between joints
b. Connections between cartilages
c. Connections between bones
d. Connections between muscles

62. Synovial cavities are filled with:
a. Blood
b. Salts
c. Synovial fluids
d. Proteins

63. Mendel’s idea that pair of characters separate during gamete formation is called:
a. law of Particulate inheritance
b. law of Segregation
c. law of Dominance
d. law of Independent assortment

64. Which of the following number of chromosomes are present in the somatic cells of Drosophila?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 2

65. A testcross is performed:
a. Only with hybrids
b. Only with pure types
c. Only between recessives
d. To determine whether an organism is heterozygous or homozygous dominant

66. One map unit is supposed to equal to:
a. 1% recombination frequency
b. 5% recombination frequency
c. 10 % recombination frequency
d. 15% recombination frequency

67. Albinism is a autosomal recessive trait. A woman with albino father marries an albino man. What is the probability of albinism in her childern:
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%

68. Phenotype represents:
a. Physical appearance of the trait
b. Genetic make up of the trait
c. Normal trait
d. Mutant trait

PHYSICS

69. Unit of time in FPS units is:
a. Millisecond
b. Minute
c. Hour
d. Second

70. An eagle of mass 4 kg is locked inside a cage of mass 2 kg. If the eagle starts flying, what will be the mass of the bird and cage assembly?
a. 5 kg
b. 7 kg
c. 2 kg
d. 6 kg

71. Force is a:
a. Vector
b. Scalar
c. Tensor
d. Base quantity

72. If the force of 20 N acts at an angle 60 degree along horizontal then its vertical and horizontal components are:
a. 20 N, 0 N
b. 15 N, 10 N
c. 17.32 N, 10 N
d. 10 N, 17.32 N

73. A gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity of 1200 ms-1. The man holding it can exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun.

How many bullets can he fire per second at the most?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

74. A man of mass 50 kg on the top floor of a skyscraper steps into an elevator. Assume g=10 ms-2.

What is the man’s weight as the elevator accelerates downward at a rate of 1.5ms-2?
a. 460 N
b. 325 N
c. 425 N
d. 475 N

75. If kinetic energy increased 4 times then momentum will increase:
a. 3 times
b. 4 times
c. 5 times
d. 2 times

76. Minimum value of kinetic energy is:
a. Infinite
b. Zero
c. Negative constant
d. Minus infinite

77. Two spring having force constant in the ratio of 3 : 4, both the springs are stretched by equal force F, if elongation in first spring is x then elongation in second spring is:
a. 3x
b. 4x
c. 3x/4
d. 4x/3

78. A body is undergoing non uniform circular motion, work done by radial force on the body:
a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Variable

79. Centripetal force is provided by________ in a frictional road around a circular path:
a. Friction force
b. Normal force
c. Gravitational force
d. Pseudo forces

80. Radian can be used to measure:
a. Length of line
b. Diameter of circle
c. Side of triangle
d. Arc length

81. The quantity used in angular measurement is:
a. Parameter
b. Area
c. Circumference
d. Volume

82. Earth covers its one revolution around sun in:
a. 24 hours
b. 7 days
c. 12 months
d. 60 minutes

83. The distance between adjacent fringes will increase, if we use:
a. Red light
b. Blue light
c. Lowest order
d. Highest order

84. The velocity of sound in vacuum at 0 degree centigrade:
a. 332 m/s
b. 344 m/s
c. 330 m/s
d. 0

85. The unit of frequency is:
a. Hertz
b. Decibel
c. Ampere
d. Radian

86. Example of mechanical waves is:
a. Transverse wave
b. Longitudinal wave
c. Both transverse and longitudinal wave
d. Compressional waves

87. Microwave is:
a. An electromagnetic wave
b. Sound wave
c. Longitudinal wave
d. Standing wave

88. Pitch depends upon:
a. Frequency
b. Timbre
c. Loudness
d. Amplitude

89. The property of musical sound which differentiate between grave and shrill sound is called?
a. Pitch
b. Intensity
c. Beats
d. Quality

90. Unit of heat capacity is:
a. J/K
b. J/K.mole
c. J/K.kg
d. Joule

91. Molar heat capacity is defined as heat required to raise the temperature by 1 degree of _____ substance.
a. 2 mole
b. 2 kg
c. 1 kg
d. 1 mole

92. Specific heat of a gas in isothermal process is:
a. Infinite
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Remains constant

93. “Electrical potential energy between two charges at distance “”r”” is given by:”
a. (k*q1*q2)/r
b. (k*q1*q2)/r^2
c. k*q1*q2
d. k*q1*q2/2r

94. “””Consider an isolated parallel plate capacitor. Both plates have charge +Q and -Q and filled with a dielectric with dielectric constant K. We pull out the dielectric material, if the charges on the plates do not change, how does the energy in the capacitor changes?”””
a. It increases
b. It decreases
c. It remains same
d. Insufficient data

95. Which of the following could not be the units of electric intensity?
a. Joule per coulomb per meter
b. Joule per coulomb
c. Volt per metre
d. Newton’s per coulomb

96. Direction of electric force and electric field intensity for a positive charge is:
a. Parallel to each other
b. Perpendicular to each other
c. Opposite to each other
d. Random

97. The change in potential energy per unit charge between two points in an electric field is called:
a. Potential difference
b. Absolute potential
c. Electric intensity
d. Permittivity

98. The electric flux through the surface of the sphere is directly proportional to the
a. Surface area of the sphere
b. Radius of the sphere
c. Charge at the centre of the sphere
d. Nature of charge

99. Electric Flux through the surface of a sphere which has constant charge at its centre depends on:
a. The radius of the sphere
b. The surface area of the sphere
c. The amount of charge inside the sphere
d. The amount of charge outside the sphere

100. Current is a ________ physical quantity:
a. Scalar Quantity
b. Vector Quantity
c. Variable Quantity
d. Constant Quantity

101. Steady current does not change with respect to ________.
a. Conductor
b. Source
c. Time
d. Potential Difference

102. Ohm’s Law is applicable only when temperature is:
a. Changing
b. Absolute Zero
c. Constant
d. Decreasing

103. Resistivity of a substance is defined as the resistance of a ______ of that substance.
a. Meter
b. Meter Square
c. Meter Cube
d. Centimeter

104. Resistance of a conductor depends upon:
a. Temperature
b. Nature of a conductor
c. Length
d. Color

105. Terminal potential difference of a cell:
a. Increases with increase in its internal resistance
b. Decrease with increase in internal resistance
c. Is independent of its internal resistance
d. Varies exponentially with resistance

106. Study of magnets is called:
a. Electromagnetism
b. Magnetism
c. Electrostatics
d. Current electricity

107. If the current in wire is doubled then magnetic field would be:
a. Half
b. Remain same
c. Triple
d. Double

108. The magnetic flux density is:
a. Magnetic field lines per unit area
b. Magnetic field lines per unit volume
c. Electric field lines per unit area
d. Electric field lines per unit volume

109. Current produced by moving coil is called:
a. Induced current
b. Direct current
c. Polarized current
d. No current

110. Self inductance of a coil does not depends upon:
a. Length
b. Current
c. Number of turns
d. Area of coil

111. The negative sign in Lenz’s law indicates that the induced emf opposes the rate of change of:
a. Electric flux
b. Magnetic flux
c. Electric field
d. Magnetic field

112. The mechanical energy of our hand used to push the magnet towards or away from the coil results into:
a. Heat energy
b. Potential energy
c. Electrical energy
d. Mechanical energy

113. In step down transformer, current in secondary coil is ____ than current in primary coil:
a. Equal
b. Less
c. Greater
d. Unchanged

114. Transistors can be used as:
a. Half wave rectifier
b. Full wave rectifier
c. Photocell
d. Switch

115. Among the following four spectral regions, which photon has the highest energy?
a. Infrared
b. Violet
c. Blue
d. Ultraviolet

116. A three dimensional image is achieved by scanning the surface with a focused beam of electrons:
a. Sem
b. Tem
c. Xrd
d. Stem

117. Planck’s constant is analogous to:
a. Inertia
b. Wave nature
c. Angular momentum
d. Linear momentum

118. The units for absorption power is:
a. Meter
b. Second
c. Henry
d. No Units

119. X rays are also known as:
a. Low energy Invisible Photons
b. High energy Visible Photons
c. High energy Invisible Photons
d. Low energy Visible Photons

120. The x-rays used in medical field have ____ intensity:
a. High
b. Low
c. Medium
d. Very high

121. The ordinary TV screen made of cathode tube emits:
a. Cathode rays
b. Anode rays
c. Gamma rays
d. It emits no radiation

122. What is the relationship between half life of radioactive isotope and its wavelength?
a. They are equal in magnitude
b. They are directly proportional
c. They are inversely proportional
d. No relation

CHEMISTRY

123. Which one of the following is calculated from balanced equation during determination of limiting reactant ?
a. Amount of reactants present
b. Amount of limiting reactant that produce the product
c. Amount of product expected to form from each reactant
d. Amount of excess reactant

124. What is the percentage of C in glucose (C6H12O6)?
a. 41.5
b. 38
c. 39.9
d. 38.9

125. A compound of boron and hydrogen contains 18.9% of hydrogen and 81.1% boron. The empirical formula of the compound is :
a. BeH2
b. Be2H
c. B4H
d. B2H5

126. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in shell for which l = 3 is:
a. 2
b. 32
c. 10
d. 8

127. The atomic number of calcium is 20. The electronic structure of a calcium ion can be represented as
a. 28
b. 284
c. 288
d. 2,882

128. Using the periodic table, indicate which one of the following elements is the most metallic?
a. Rb
b. K
c. Ca
d. Fe

129. Who named the positive rays produce by the hydrogen gas in the discharge tube?
a. Goldstein
b. Rutherford
c. Bohr
d. Chedwick

130. Gases behave ideally at
a. under normal temperature and pressure conditions. .
b. at room temperature and pressure
c. At high temperature and low pressures, gases behave ideally.
d. At high pressure and low temperature

131. Which one of the following is called as compressibility factor?
a. PV=nRT
b. PV/RT
c. PV/RT=n
d. PV/T=Rn

132. Gases can easily mix with each other to form a uniform mixture, this property is called:
a. Effusion
b. Homogenous Mixing
c. Diffusion
d. Heterogeneous mixing

133. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction ?
a. H₂O
b. H₂S
c. H₂Se
d. H₂Te

134. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction ?
a. H₂O
b. H₂S
c. H₂Se
d. H₂Te

135. Which solids are also called as Atomic solids?
a. Ionic solids
b. Covalent solids
c. Molecular solids
d. Metallic solids

136. Malleability is the property of metals. which means _____?
a. Drawn into wires
b. Converted into sheets
c. Drawn into wires and converted into sheets
d. breakable

137. The addition of an Acid or H+ ions to Acetic Acid buffer will
a. Increase the pH
b. Decrease the pH
c. have no effect on the pH
d. Both A and B

138. Ksp (Solubility product) depends upon
a. pressure
b. Concentration
c. Temperature
d. volume

139. Addition of extra CH3COONa in acetate buffer soluton will:
a. Decrease pH
b. Have no effect on pH
c. Increase pH
d. First Increase then decrease

140. What is the unit of slope obtained from Arrhenius equation?
a. K
b. J/mol K
c. mol/K
d. K¯

141. Number of molecules possessing Ea Activation Energy can be increased by
a. Adding a Catalyst
b. Increasing the volume
c. Increasing Temperature
d. Increasing Number of Moles of Reactants

142. Which one of the following is the correct demonstration of first law of thermodynamics?
a. ∆H= qw
b. ∆H=q – ∆P∆V
c. ∆H=q + w
d. ∆E = q + w

143. In the air, N2 and O2 occur naturally but they do not react to form oxides of nitrogen because
a. oxides of nitrogen are unstable
b. catalyst is required for the reaction
c. the reaction is endothermic
d. N2 and O2 do not react with each other

144. In the electrolysis of fused salt, where does the cations move?
a. Move towards anode and discharge on it
b. Move towards Cathode and discharge on it
c. Move towards cathode,gain electron and dissolve in solution
d. Both a and b

145. In ion electron method of balancing equations , how oxygen is balanced?
a. O is balanced by adding O₂
b. O is balanced by adding H₂O
c. O is balanced by adding OH
d. All the ways are used

146. Which of the following orbital has lower energy?
a. Anti bonding molecular orbital
b. Anti bonding atomic orbitals
c. Bonding half filled orbitals
d. Bonding molecular orbital

147. In the gaseous phase, when ionization takes place ____________ are isolated and are free from all external influences.
a. atoms and molecule
b. atom and cation
c. atom and anion
d. atom and ion

148. The bond length of ____ is 174pm
a. C-C
b. Cl-Cl
c. Cl-H
d. C-Cl

149. Which of the following substances is the strongest reducing agent?
a. Cl2
b. Cl-
c. Br2
d. Br-

150. The increase in solubility of hydroxides of alkaline earth metals increase down the group due to low
a. Ionic size
b. Atomic size
c. decrease of lattice energy
d. Hydration energy

151. Which of the following metal occurs in free state ______________?
a. Gold
b. Iron
c. Mercury
d. Copper

152. Which of the following product is formed by reaction of aluminium with nitrogen ?
a. AlN₃
b. AlN
c. Al₃N₂
d. Al₃N₂

153. How many unpaired electrons are there in Co2+ ion?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 7

154. Which one is a interstitial compound?
a. TiC
b. ZnO
c. BF₃
d. NH₃

155. The breaking of large molecules by heating at high temperature and pressure is called:
a. Reforming
b. Steam cracking
c. Catalytic cracking
d. Thermal cracking

156. Which of the following has anti knocking properties?
a. (CH₃CH₂)₄Sn
b. (CH₃CH₂)₄Pb
c. (CH₃CH₂)₄Ge
d. (CH₃CH₂)₄Si

157. Which of the following fraction of petroleum has lowest boiling point at STP.
a. Kerosine oil
b. Lubricating oil
c. Gasoline
d. Natureal gas

158. Which of the following undergoes sulfonation the fastest?
a. Benzene
b. Chlorobenzene
c. Nitrobenzene
d. Toluene

159. White precipitates are formed when _________ is passed from ammoniacal solution of silver nitrate.
a. Methylene
b. Ethylene
c. Acetylene
d. vinylene

160. The termination step of the Halogenation of alkanes in the presence of sunlight involves the formation of:
a. Free radicals
b. Cations
c. Anions
d. Molecules

161. The C-C bond length in benzene is:
a. 1.39 Angstrom
b. 1.20 Angstrom
c. 1.34 Angstrom
d. 1.54 Angstrom

162. Benzene is more stable than hypothetical 1,3,5-cyclohexatriene by:
a. 150.5 kJ/mol
b. 150.5 J/mol
c. 150.5 kJ/molecule
d. 150.5 J/molecule

163. The correct name of CH₂Cl₂ is:
a. Methyl chloride
b. Methylene chloride
c. Chloroform
d. Carbonyl chloride

164. Which one of the following is a strong Nucleophile?
a. Cl-
b. Br-
c. OH-
d. HSO4-

165. 2-chlorobutane belongs to:
a. Primary Alkyl halides
b. Secondary Alkyl Halides
c. Tertiary Alkyl Halides
d. Quarternary Alkyl halides

166. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

167. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

168. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

169. Aldehyde common names are derived from carboxylic acid names with the same number of:
a. Hydrogen atoms
b. Carbon atoms
c. Oxygen atoms
d. Carbon and hydrogen atoms

170. The carbanion attacks the molecule of another carbonyl compound to form
a. an alkoxide group
b. aldol
c. a carbanion
d. a carbonium ion

171. Fehling’s solution is
a. alkaline-cupric citrate complex ion
b. ammonical AgNO3
c. alkaline cupric tartarate complex ion
d. sodium nitroprusside solution

172. Which one of the following is not an accepted common name?
a. Butanoic acid
b. Formic acid
c. Propionic acid
d. Acetic acid

173. Salts of carboxylic acids can be converted into corresponding carboxylic acid by treating with
a. water
b. base
c. acid anhydrides
d. acid

174. The flavour of amyl butyrate is:
a. Mango
b. Raspberry
c. Apricot
d. Orange

175. Lattice energy does not depend on the:
a. Nature of Charge on the ion
b. Size of the ions
c. Magnitude of charge on the ion
d. Room temperature

176. What is the value of lattice energy when one mole of an ionic crystal is formed?
a. Positive Value
b. Negative Value
c. Zero value
d. Positive fraction value

ENGLISH

177. “The old building is now a pedestrian ______. Find the synonym of “”pedestrain”””
a. arrival
b. palace
c. pavement
d. precinct

178. I must book a ______ for our game of tennis on Sunday.
a. field
b. court
c. green
d. team

179. The ice is very ______ so do not walk on it, or you will fall in.
a. high
b. low
c. thick
d. thin

180. Children always ______ the truth.
a. are speaking
b. speak
c. will speak
d. spoke

181. He often______to school in time.
a. will go
b. goes
c. will be going
d. have gone

182. I ______ to quit my job and have planned to apply for another one.
a. decided
b. have decided
c. had decided
d. was decided

183. She said that she was happy. Which type of narration is used here?
a. Indirect
b. Direct
c. Simple
d. Complex

184. Choose the sentence with correct preposition.
a. He was accused of theft.
b. He was accused from theft.
c. He was accused off theft.
d. He was accused with theft.

185. We need to find _______ method to solve this problem.
a. other
b. another
c. others
d. the other

186. We are still a long way from _________ home.
a. a
b. an
c. the
d. no article

187. Adil insisted ,we all go out for _________ cup of coffee.
a. a
b. an
c. the
d. no article

188. They had to put _________ the meeting when the general director didn’t turn_________ .
a. on… off
b. up… off
c. off… on
d. off… up

189. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Racommend
b. Racomand
c. Recomend
d. Recommend

190. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Annehilate
b. Anihilate
c. Annihilate
d. Anehilate

191. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Ignomeny
b. Ignominy
c. Ignomminy
d. Ignomny

192. Many jobs today require that the applicant must be a College graduate. This sentence has an error of :
a. Grammar
b. Capitalization
c. Spelling
d. Punctuation

193. The applicant had some questions during our interview? This sentence has an error of :
a. Grammar
b. Capitalization
c. Spelling
d. Punctuation

194. Which one is correct? Read carefully.
a. If it had not been this sort of a school, it would probably not have taken Chips.
b. If it had not been this sort of school, it would probably not have taken Chips.
c. If it had not been this sort of school, it will probably not have taken chips.
d. If it has not been this sort of school, it would probably not have taken Chips.

LOGICAL REASONING

195. A. Thousands of people were killed early in the morning along the coastline. B. Hundreds of birds suddenly flew away from the ground.
a. Statement A is the cause and statement B is its effect.
b. Statement B is the cause and Statement A is its effect.
c. Both statements are independent causes.
d. Both statements are independent causes.

196. Statement : The vehicular traffic has increased so much in the recent past that it takes at least two hours to travel between the city and the airport during peak hours.

Courses of Action : I. Non-airport bound vehicles should not be allowed to use the road connecting the city and the airport. II. The load of vehicular traffic should be diverted through various link roads during peak hours. III. The departure and arrival of flights should be regulated so as to avoid congestion during peak hours.
a. Only I follows
b. Only II follows
c. None follows
d. Either I or II follows

197. From the following, which one is an odd pair?
a. Petrol- Car
b. Oil – Lamp
c. Coal – Engine
d. Smoke_ Fire

198. Which of the following animals is different from the others?
a. Whale
b. Tiger
c. Shark
d. Jellyfish

199. Fact 1: A boy has four cars. Fact 2: Two of the cars are red. Fact 3: He has one sports car.

If the above three statements are facts then which of the following statement will also be a fact I. The boy has a red sports car II. He has 2 corolla III. His favorite color is red
a. Only I and II
b. Only II
c. Only III
d. None of the statement is a fact

200. A four-person crew from Classic Colors is painting Mrs. Farhan’s house. Mohit is painting the front of the house. Riaz is in the alley behind the house painting the back. Javed is painting the window frames on the north side, Shan is on the south. If Mohit switches places with Javed, and Javed then switches places with Shan, where is Shan?
a. In the alley behind the house
b. On the north side of the house
c. In front of the house
d. On the south side of the house

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