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PMC Mock Test 3


1. A virus has its of genome which is enclosed by a protein coat, called:
a. Spore
b. Capcid
c. Envelop
d. Shell

2. Viruses are able to recognize the host surface by means of their:
a. Capsid
b. Spikes
c. DNA
d. RNA

3. Reverse transcriptase of HIV is used in:
a. Conversion of viral RNA into viral DNA
b. Conversion of viral RNA into host DNA
c. Conversion of viral DNA into viral RNA
d. Conversion of host DNA into viral DNA

4. Human immunodeficiency virus is:
a. An RNA enveloped virus
b. A DNA enveloped virus
c. An RNA non-enveloped virus
d. An DNA non-enveloped virus

5. In aerobic respiration, chemiosmosis occurs during :
a. Electron transport chain
b. Photo phosphorylation
c. Glycolysis
d. Kreb’s cycle

6. One ATP molecule contains 1% of total energy of glucose, In anaerobic reactions how much energy of glucose is released as ATP :
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 36%
d. 38%

7. Which of the following is the final electron acceptor in respiratory electron transport chain?
a. NADP+
b. Molecular oxygen
c. PS-I
d. PS-II

8. Neil investigation on photosynthesis was carried on :
a. Cyanobacteria
b. Angiosperms
c. Algae
d. Bacteria

9. Which of the following is milk sugar?
a. Sucrose
b. Lactose
c. Maltose
d. Starch

10. When two amino acids such as glycine and alanine are variously arranged to make dipeptides. How many different dipeptide combinations can be produced?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

11. Which of the following bonds maintain the primary structure of a protein
a. Hydrogen bonds
b. Peptide bonds
c. Disulphide bonds
d. Hydrophobic interaction

12. Maximum how many carbon atoms does an oligosaccharide contain?
a. 3
b. 7
c. 70
d. Many thousands

13. Cholesterol is not present in______
a. milk
b. egg white
c. egg yolk
d. fish

14. Hydrogen bonding produces a regular coiled arrangement in proteins called
a. α-helix
b. β-helix
c. Tertiary conformation
d. Quaternary structure

15. Which of the following is correct about globular proteins?
a. Insoluble in water
b. Elastic in nature
c. Can be crystalized
d. their final structure is secondary

16. Which cell organelle is incorrectly matched with its function?
a. Chloroplast – carbon fixation
b. Mitochondria – ATP synthesis
c. Cell membrane – cell recognition
d. Golgi apparatus – intracellular digestion

17. Which interactions are responsible for the formation of lipid bilayer in the watery environment of the body?
a. Hydrophobic interactions between fatty acid tails
b. Hydrophobic interactions between phosphate heads
c. Hydrophilic interactions between fatty acid tails
d. Hydrogen bonding between fatty acid tails

18. Which of the following is responsible for giving firmness and box-like shape to plant cells?
a. Cell wall
b. Cell wall and vacuole
c. Nucleus and vacuole
d. Cell membrane

19. Golgi complex was discovered by which scientist?
a. Robert Brown
b. Camillo Golgi
c. De Duve
d. Robert Hooke

20. Which of these is the right combination of molecules which make up the secondary cell wall in plant cells?
a. Cellulose, lignin and xylem
b. Cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin
c. Cellulose only
d. Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin

21. Which of the following is the system of elongated sac like structures (cisternae) or tubes linking the cell surface membrane and the nuclear envelope?
a. Mirotubules
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi complex
d. Microfilaments

22. Which one of the following can easily pass through plasma membrane
a. Fat soluble substances
b. Proteins
c. Highly charged materials
d. Polysacchrides

23. Endemic goitre relates to which altered function?
a. Increased Pancreas function
b. Increased Thyroid function
c. Decreased Pancreas function
d. Decreased Thyroid function

24. How many hormones does the Islets of Langerhans secrete?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

25. The anterior part of cerebral hemisphere located in the cerebrum is classified as?
a. Ganglion bulbs
b. Axon bulbs
c. Dendrite bulbs
d. Olfactory bulbs

26. Grave’s disease is produced due to which of the following?
a. Under Secretion of thyroxine
b. Under Secretion of corticosteroids
c. Overproduction of corticosteroids
d. Overproduction of thyroxine

27. Insufficient secretion of thyroxine in adults causes which of the following disorders?
a. Myxedema
b. Cretinism
c. Goiter
d. Addison’s disease

28. Which of the following is second largest part of the brain?
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Hypothalamus
d. Thalamus

29. Which of the following is true about cnidarians?
a. They are deuterostomic animals
b. They are triploblastic animals
c. They are protostomous animals
d. They are diploblastic animals

30. Which of the following animal phylum is included in series deuterostomia?
a. Platyhelminthes
b. Annelida
c. Chordata
d. Mollusca

31. Which of the following invertebrate phylum consists of the most abundant species on planet Earth:
a. Porifera
b. Cnidaria
c. Arthropoda
d. Mollusca

32. Which among the following lacks the nervous system
a. Flat worms
b. Annelida
c. Cnidaria
d. Sponge

33. The enzyme-substrate complex is formed in which part of the enzyme molecule?
a. Binding site
b. Allosteric site
c. Catalytic site
d. On all over the surface of enzyme

34. In non-competitive inhibition, the extent of inhibition depends only on?
a. Concentration of enzyme
b. Concentration of substrate
c. Concentration of ES complex
d. Concentration of inhibitor

35. When the salivary amylase is reached in stomach cavity:
a. It becomes an apoenzyme
b. It is denatured
c. It participates in protein digestion
d. It remains unaffected

36. Which of the following may attach on active site of an enzyme?
a. Products
b. Coenzyme
c. Activator
d. Inhibitor

37. Which of the following part of enzyme recognize the substrate?
a. Binding site
b. Active site
c. Catalytic site
d. Overall structure of an enzyme

38. Which of the following shows significant effect of Genetic drift ?
a. Animal population
b. Plant population
c. Large population
d. Small population

39. Which of the following was proposed by Lamarck in his theory?
a. Overproduction
b. struggle for existance
c. Natural selection
d. Use and disuse of organs

40. Most likely, people who perform tough manual work can develop
a. thick subcutaneous fat in their palms
b. greater quantity of melanin all over the body
c. Strong calf muscles
d. certain aquired characters

41. According to Darwin, the most critical factor for evolution is:
a. Migration
b. Mutation
c. Natural selection
d. Genetic drift

42. Lungs are spongy due to the presence of million of?
a. Alveoli
b. Parabronchi
c. Air sacs
d. Bronchioles

43. Functional units of lungs are called which of the following?
a. Alveoli
b. Parabronchi
c. Air sacs
d. Bronchioles

44. Which of the following fish drink large amount of seawater and excrete concentrated urine resulting in maximum salt excretion and minimal water loss?
a. Hagfish
b. Freshwater fish
c. Bony fish
d. Cartilaginous fishes

45. Which respiration is directly involved in the production of energy, necessary for all living activities?
a. Organismic
b. Cellular
c. Breathing
d. External respiration

46. The mechanism of regulation, generally between organism and its environment, of solutes and the gain and the loss of water is called?
a. Hemostasis
b. Homeostasis
c. Osmoregulation
d. Thermoregulation

47. Iliac vein from the lower limb’s unit to form:
a. Vena cava
b. Renal vein
c. Hepatic portal vein
d. Cardiac vein

48. Plasma proteins synthesized in:
a. Gall bladder
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Skin

49. A bacterial cell envelop does not include :
a. Slime
b. Campsule
c. Cell wall
d. Cell membrane

50. A periplasmic space is:
a. The space between outer membrane and peptidoglycan layer of cell wall
b. The space between cell membrane and cell wall
c. The space within the cell
d. The space between phospholipid bilayer

51. Which of the following bacteria are also called recyclers of nature?
a. Pathogenic bacteria
b. Parasitic bacteria
c. Photosynthetic bacteria
d. Saprotrophic bacteria

52. A chemical which is applied on non living surface in order to control bacteria is called:
a. Disinfectants
b. Antiseptic
c. Vaccines
d. Antibiotics

53. Which of the following is true about staphylococcus?
a. It is chain of spherical bacteria
b. It is bunch of spherical bacteria
c. It is square of spherical bacteria
d. It is cube of spherical bacteria

54. End of menstrual cycle in old age is called?
a. Menarche
b. Abortion
c. Menopause
d. Telophase

55. The union of meiotically produced specialized sex cells from each parents produce?
a. Corpus luteum
b. Embryo
c. Zygote
d. Neuroglial cells

56. Which of the following is the number of chromosomes in human zygote?
a. n
b. 2n
c. 3n
d. 4n

57. In reproduction, semen refers to which of the following?
a. Fluid and sperms
b. Blood cells and plasma
c. Blood and sperms
d. Egg and sperms

58. Which of the following part of sperm cell penetrates into the ovum during fertilization?
a. Cytoplasm
b. Nucleus
c. Acrosome
d. Mitochondria

59. Hip joint and shoulder joint are the examples of:
a. Ball and Socket Joint
b. Hinge Joint
c. Fibrous joint
d. Cartilaginous joints

60. Cardiac tissue is made up of :
a. Cardiac muscle
b. Smooth muscles
c. Skeletal muscles
d. Gut muscles

61. The composition of skeletal muscle is:
a. Myosin only
b. Actin only
c. Actin, myosin and troponin
d. Actin, myosin and tropomyosin

62. The skeletal system consists of:
a. All bones in body
b. All muscles and tendons
c. All body organs both soft and hard tissues
d. All the bones in the body and tissues that connect them

63. What is the ratio of homozygous to heterozygous individuals in F2 generation of monohybrid cross
a. 1 ratio 1
b. 1 ratio 2
c. 1 ratio 3
d. 3 ratio 1

64. The genetic information for a specific character is detrrmined by
a. Genome
b. Transposon
c. Gene
d. Trait

65. Blood group AB negative can receive:
a. Blood group A posative
b. Blood group B posative
c. Blood group O posative
d. Any of the negative blood group

66. Blood group O negative can receive:
a. Blood group A positive
b. Blood group B positive
c. Blood group O negative
d. Any of the positive blood group

67. Which of the following is the wildtype phenotype of eye color in Drosophila
a. Black eyes
b. White eyes
c. Light red eyes
d. Bright red eyes

68. Which of the following disease has greater incidence in human male than female?
a. Haemophilia
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Thalassemia
d. Cretinism


69. If the bird catches its prey from a height which was initially at rest then momentum will conserve for:
a. Bird
b. Prey
c. Either bird and prey
d. Both bird and prey

70. A wagon of mass 1000 kg moves 50 km/h on smooth rails. Later, a mass of 250 kg is placed in the wagon. What is the velocity with which it moves?
a. 20 km/h
b. 50 km/h
c. 40 km/h
d. 25 km/h

71. A force of 50 dynes is acted on a body of mass 5 g which is at rest for an interval of 3 seconds, then impulse is
a. 0.00015 N.s
b. 0.0015 N.s
c. 0.15 N.s
d. 1.5 N.s

72. The total momentum of a flock of identical birds could be zero only if the birds are:
a. Taking off from the ground
b. Flying in the same direction
c. Flying in different directions
d. Very tired and coming down to rest

73. Which of the following quantities has no effect on simple projectile motion?
a. Velocity
b. Force
c. Mass
d. Acceleration

74. If a particle launched with 5m/s at angle of 45 degree, then time of flight is:
a. 1.44 s
b. 0.72 s
c. 0.6 s
d. 0.5 s

75. Kinetic energy of an oscillating simple pendulum at the equilibrium positionis:
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Zero
d. Information insufficient

76. A car and a train both have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater momentum?
a. Car
b. Train
c. Both have same
d. No change

77. Unit of power in british engineering system is:
a. Horse power
b. Watt
c. Kilowatt
d. Joule

78. A 10kW motor pumps out water from a well 10 meter deep. What is the quantity of water pumped out per second?
a. 9.2 kg
b. 9.5 kg
c. 10.2 kg
d. 10.8 kg

79. The acceleration produced by the centripetal force is always:
a. Directed parallel to the center of the circle
b. Directed perpendicular to the center of the circle
c. Directed towards the center of the circle
d. Directed away from the center of the circle

80. The earth rotates 360 ∘ about its axis in about 24 hours. By how many degrees will it rotate in 2 hours?
a. 90
b. 60
c. 30
d. 15

81. The direction associated with angular displacement is given by:
a. Left-hand rule
b. Head to tail rule
c. Right-hand rule
d. Fleming left hand rule

82. Centripetal force is provided by________ in a frictional road around a circular path:
a. Friction force
b. Normal force
c. Gravitational force
d. Pseudo forces

83. Speed of sound does not depend on:
a. Pressure
b. Density
c. Adiabatic index
d. Amplitude

84. The speed of sound cannot be greater than:
a. Speed of shock wave
b. Speed of light
c. Speed of water wave
d. Speed of sound in vacuum

85. The sound waves have no:
a. Frequency of the wave
b. Energy
c. Nodes
d. Intensity

86. Sound waves are considered as____ waves:
a. Compressional
b. Transverse
c. Longitudinal
d. Shock

87. Stationary waves are produced by:
a. Reflection
b. Interference
c. Diffraction
d. Rarefaction

88. When two ends of string are struck together simultaneously such that two troughs are traveling towards each other, than at reaching the centre of string ____ is formed:
a. Higher amplitude
b. Lower amplitude
c. Waves die immediately
d. Troughs converted to crest

89. Waves which always need medium to travel are _______ waves:
a. Light
b. Stationary
c. Sound
d. Both sound and stationary

90. For a monatomic ideal gas of 6 mole Cp /Cv :
a. 1.4
b. 1.67
c. 5
d. 3

91. Cp for monatomic gas in terms of R is:
a. 3/5 R
b. 5/3 R
c. 5/4 R
d. 5/2 R

92. Cp = 49 J/K.mole and Cv= 35 J/K,mol then what type of gas is this?
a. Diatomic
b. Monatomic
c. Triatomic
d. Nonlinear triatomic

93. Which of the following forces are only attractive?
a. Electrostatic forces
b. Gravitational forces
c. Magnetic forces
d. Forces between same poles of magnet

94. Which of the following forces are non conservative?
a. Electric force
b. Gravitational force
c. Frictional forces
d. Elastic spring force

95. Parallel combination of two capacitor C1 and C2 is:
a. C1+ C2
b. (C1)(C2)
c. (C1C2)/(C1+C2)
d. C1/C2

96. Charge inside conductor is:
a. Possible
b. Can be greater than zero
c. Zero
d. Negative always

97. The electric flux through a closed surface depends upon the:
a. Size of the surface
b. Shape of the surface
c. Position of charge enclosed in the surface
d. Magnitude of charge enclosed in the surface

98. Electric potential determines the flow of?
a. Atom
b. Molecule
c. Compound
d. Charge

99. In parallel plate capacitor Capacitance depends on:
a. Charge
b. Electric field
c. Voltage
d. Crosssectional area

100. Ohm’s law is valid at _______ temperatures
a. Constant
b. Varying
c. Low
d. High

101. In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be
a. As long as possible
b. As short as possible
c. Neither too small not too large
d. Very thick

102. ______ is a source of electrical energy having fixed polarity and terminals
a. Motor
b. Metals
c. Battery
d. Generator

103. Correct form of ohm’s law
a. i = vr
b. v = i/r
c. v = ir
d. r= iv

104. Ohm’s law is valid when the temperature of conductor is :
a. Very low
b. Very high
c. Varying
d. Constant

105. The specific resistance of a conductor increases with:
a. Increase in temperature
b. Increase in cross-sectional area
c. Decrease in length
d. Decrease in cross-sectional area

106. When two magnets come closer such that same poles face each other than field lines:
a. Intersect
b. Repel
c. Come closer
d. Nothing will happen

107. When two positive charge particles moves towards each other in opposite direction:
a. Repulsion occurs
b. Attraction occurs
c. Nothing will happen
d. Charge will be neutralized

108. When two positive and negative particles are moving opposite to each other in uniform magnetic field:
a. Deflection occurs
b. Attraction occurs
c. Repulsion occurs
d. Nothing will happen

109. The induced emf will oppose the flux producing it is according to:
a. Gravitational law
b. Coulomb law
c. Newton’s law
d. Lenze’s law

110. The Lenz’s law is used to find out the direction of
a. Current induced in circuit
b. Potential energy
c. Magnetic field
d. Force

111. Transformer works on principle of :
a. Electromagnetic induction
b. Coulombs law
c. Gauss’s law
d. Ampere’s law

112. Transformer can convert _____
a. Low DC voltage
b. High DC voltage
c. Battery voltage
d. AC voltage

113. Eddy currents flow in:
a. Open loops
b. Closed loops
c. Straight lines
d. Vertical loops

114. Ripple factor of half wave rectifier is:
a. 1.21
b. 0.8
c. 0.6
d. 0.4

115. Planck constant is named after:
a. Einstein
b. Newton
c. Maxwell
d. Max planck

116. Photocell is based on:
a. Photoelectric effect
b. Compton effect
c. Photoluminescence
d. Pair production

117. A beam of electrons can be:
a. Reflected
b. Refracted
c. Reflected and refracted
d. Polarized

118. Spectral lines is like a __________ of absorbed or emission energy in a spectrum:
a. Charged Pattern
b. Fingerprint Pattern
c. Discharged Pattern
d. Scattered Pattern

119. The black body always _____ radiations:
a. Emit
b. Absorb
c. Both Emit And Absorb
d. Reflects

120. How many up quarks in proton:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

121. Which particle has no charge:
a. Electron
b. Proton
c. Neutron
d. Positron

122. The electrons are accelerated in microscopes to produce:
a. X rays
b. Beta rays
c. High resolution images
d. Gamma rays


123. The number of formula units in 10.0 g of CaCO₃ are:
a. 6.022×10²²
b. 6.022×10²³
c. 3.011×10²²
d. 3.011×10²³

124. In a perticular chemical reaction the actual yield was 70gm, while that of its theoretical yield is 100 gm. The pecentage yield of the said reation is:
a. 100%
b. 70%
c. 40%
d. 20%

125. In the process of iron rusting, which of the following is limiting reactant?
a. Iron
b. Oxygen
c. Air
d. Water

126. Which of the following doesnot have complete octet?
a. O ²⁻
b. N⁵⁺
c. Ca²⁺
d. K⁺

127. The value of Azimuthal quantum number (l) depends upon:
a. n
b. m
c. s
d. p

128. In the discharge tube positive rays move in which direction?
a. Towards anode
b. Towards cathode
c. Move randomly
d. Move towards vacuum in the tube

129. What is the shape of s-orbital?
a. Lobed
b. Spherical
c. Dumbell
d. Sausage

130. According to kinetic theory, which of the following statements is/are correct? a. Gases consist of particles (atoms or molecules)in continuous random motion. b. Collisions between particles are elastic. c. The volume occupied by particles is negligibly small d. Attractive forces between particles are significant at room temerature and pressure.
a. a and b
b. a, b and c
c. b and c
d. only d

131. 1 atm is equal to the following EXCEPT:
a. 760 mm of Hg
b. 76 cm of Hg
c. 760 torr
d. 1.47 psi

132. The temperature at which volume of all the ideal gases becomes zero is:
a. 0 K
b. 0 C⁰
c. 0 F⁰
d. 32 F⁰

133. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction ?
a. H₂O
b. H₂S
c. H₂Se
d. H₂Te

134. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction ?
a. H₂O
b. H₂S
c. H₂Se
d. H₂Te

135. Which of the following solids shows the phenomenon of Isomorphism ?
a. Molecular solids
b. Covalent solids
c. Ionic solids
d. Metallic solids

136. Who proposed valence bond theory for metals?
a. Loren
b. Drudge
c. L.Pauling
d. Maxwell

137. Ksp (Solubility product) depends upon:
a. pressure
b. Concentration
c. Temperature
d. Volume

138. Nitrogen and Hydrogen present in Equilibrium Mixture in Haber Process remain in
a. Solid state
b. Liquid state
c. Gaseous state
d. Mixture of solid and gas

139. Upon passing Hydrogen chloride gas through a brine solution, which of the following is observed?
a. Concentration of NaCl₍ₐq₎ decreases
b. Crystalization of NaCl takes place.
c. Concentraion of Na⁺ ion increases
d. concentrtion of Cl⁻ ion decreases

140. At ordinary temperature only few molecule possess energy equal to
a. Kinetic Energy
b. Potential Energy
c. Activation energy
d. Ionization Energy

141. The slowest reaction among these is:
a. Neutralization
b. Double Decomposition Reactions
c. Ionic Reactions
d. Hydrogenation Reaction

142. Born Haber cycle is used to determine:
a. Enthalpy of lattice
b. Enthalpy of formation
c. Enthalpy of neutralization
d. Enthalpy of solution

143. Which of the following law is an application of first law of thermodynamics?
a. Hess’s law
b. Dalton’s law
c. Moseley’s Law
d. Avogadro’s law

144. Cu,Au and Ag are least reactive, because they have______?
a. Negative reduction potential
b. Negative oxidation potential
c. Positive reduction potential
d. Negative electrode potential

145. The element has highest reduction potential in electrochemical series is:
a. Zinc
b. Fluorine
c. Oxygen
d. Lithium

146. The requirement for bond formation in HF can be met by
a. 2 orbitals & 1 electron
b. 2 orbital & 2 electron
c. 1 orbital & 1 electron
d. 1 orbital & 2 electron

147. Covalent radius is defined as half of the single bonded length between _____ atoms covalently bonded in a molecule.
a. Two Different
b. Two Simultaneous
c. Any Two
d. Two Similar

148. When repulsive force tend to push the atoms apart and the potential energy of the system is _____.
a. No Effect
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Change in alternation

149. The Halide of aluminum is______?
a. Electron deficient
b. Lewis acid
c. High melting point
d. High boiling point

150. Among alkali metals which of the following property is high for Li?
a. Hydration energy
b. Ionic radius
c. Electropositivity
d. Atomic size

151. Among alkaline earth metals the one which shows the least chemical reactivity is:
a. Be
b. Ca
c. Mg
d. Ba

152. Alkali metal oxides dissolve in water to give:
a. Alkaline solution
b. Neutral solution
c. Acidic solution
d. Buffer solution

153. Electrons flow from———-
a. Anode to cathode
b. Cathode to anode
c. Don’t flow
d. In either directions

154. A galvanic cell is setup
a. When a less reactive metal contacts a more reactive metal via an electrolyte
b. When two reactive metals contact via an electrolyte
c. When two reactive metals are placed in any solution
d. When two metals come in direct contact

155. The breaking of large molecules by heating at high temperature and pressure is called:
a. Reforming
b. Steam cracking
c. Catalytic cracking
d. Thermal cracking

156. Which of the following has anti knocking properties?
a. (CH₃CH₂)₄Sn
b. (CH₃CH₂)₄Pb
c. (CH₃CH₂)₄Ge
d. (CH₃CH₂)₄Si

157. Which of the following fraction of petroleum has lowest boiling point at STP.
a. Kerosine oil
b. Lubricating oil
c. Gasoline
d. Natureal gas

158. Benzene is less reactive than is corresponding alkene due to:
a. More Unsaturation
b. More Saturation
c. Less electronegativity difference between C and H-atom
d. Delocalization of pi electrons

159. What is the structure of benzene?
a. Regular, flat planar hexagon
b. Regular, 3D hexagon
c. Regular, flat planar octagon
d. Regular, planar pentagon

160. The less reactivity of benzene is due to:
a. Sigma bond
b. Delocalization of pi electrons
c. Less electronegativity of C atom
d. Hexagonal structure

161. What is the catalyst in Friedel-Crafts Alkylation?
a. AlCl₃
b. Al₂S₃
c. AlH₃
d. Al₂O₃

162. In termination step two free radicals combine to form:
a. Another free radical
b. A molecule
c. A molecular ion
d. A cation

163. The correct name of CH₂Cl₂ is:
a. Methyl chloride
b. Methylene chloride
c. Chloroform
d. Carbonyl chloride

164. Which one of the following is a strong Nucleophile?
a. Cl-
b. Br-
c. OH-
d. HSO4-

165. 2-chlorobutane belongs to:
a. Primary Alkyl halides
b. Secondary Alkyl Halides
c. Tertiary Alkyl Halides
d. Quarternary Alkyl halides

166. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

167. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

168. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

169. Idoform test is used to check the presence of :
a. Amines
b. Carbonyl compounds
c. Carboxylic acid
d. Alkyl halides

170. Acetone is less reactive than acetaldehyde due to:
a. More Steric hindrance offered by its methyl groups.
b. Electron withdrawing nature of its methyl groups.
c. Its Carbonyl carbon is sp² hybridized.
d. Oxygen of carbonyl group is more electronegative than carbon atom.

171. Formaldehyde reacts with which one of the following to give primary alcohols
a. Fehling’s reagant
b. Benedict’s Reagant
c. Grignard’s reagant
d. Millon’s reagant

172. Complete the following reaction: CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O —>.
a. Both HOC₂H₅ and CH₃CO₂H
b. Both HOCH₃ and CH₃CO₂H
c. HOC₂H₅ Only
d. CH₃CO₂H Only

173. The aliphatic monocarboxylic acid is obtained from:
a. fats and oils
b. proteins and oils
c. fats and proteins
d. fats only

174. Acetic acid was first isolated from:
a. Ants
b. Butter
c. Milk
d. Vinegar

175. A solid compound exists in more than one crystalline form, this phenomenon is called:
a. Allotropy
b. Isomorphism
c. Polymorphism
d. Isomerism

176. Which of the following is not true about Polymorphs?
a. Have same chemical properties
b. Interconvertible
c. Have same formula unit
d. Have different formula unit


177. Ali sent his mother a ______ of flowers for her birthday.
a. bar
b. bouquet
c. pack
d. packet

178. Can you please ______ your name at the bottom of the contract?
a. cross
b. answer
c. sign
d. lay

179. The ______ climbed up the tree and hid inside the branches.
a. deer
b. rabbit
c. squirrel
d. tortoise

180. We will go to Dubai. Which tense is used here?
a. Present
b. Past
c. Future
d. Past Perfect

181. Which one is future tense?
a. They are going to the market.
b. I will play football.
c. We watched a movie yesterday.
d. He has done his work.

182. Which one is correct?
a. I will go to the market.
b. I will gone to the market.
c. I will went to market.
d. I will have go to market.

183. The market is nearer to them than__________.
a. we
b. ourself
c. us
d. ourselves

184. Find the correctly spelt word
a. Sovereign
b. Soveregn
c. Soverean
d. Soverein

185. Choose the word wrongly spelt.
a. Semester
b. Senesent
c. Sensory
d. Salacious

186. I ___________ to learn a lot of new words within one month.
a. am going
b. will
c. about
d. can be

187. I woke up ________ five o’clock __________ the morning.
a. for… in
b. at.. in
c. in… at
d. at… for

188. The weather is pleasant here ________ the spring.
a. above
b. around
c. in
d. on

189. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Exhebition
b. Exhibition
c. Exhabation
d. Exehation

190. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Brucracy
b. Beaurocricy
c. Bureaucracy
d. Bueraucracy

191. Choose the correct spelling of the word
a. Bilding
b. Buillding
c. Building
d. Bulding

192. Which one is correct?
a. Whatever my father wanted me see was on top of the highest point of my farm.
b. Whatever my father wanted me to see was on top of the highest point of my farm.
c. Whatever my father want me to see was on top of the highest point of my farm.
d. Whatever my father wanted me to saw was on top of the highest point of my farm.

193. Which one is correct?
a. The book that we needed to finish ours research was missing from the library.
b. The book that we need to finish our research was missing from the library.
c. The book that we needed to finish our research was missing from the library.
d. The book that we needs to finish our research was missing from the library.

194. Which one is correct?
a. I set out a breakfast of yogurt and cereal on the kitchen table to my family.
b. I set out a breakfast of yogurt and cereal on the kitchen table from my family.
c. I set up a breakfast of yogurt and cereal on the kitchen table for my family.
d. I set out a breakfast of yogurt and cereal on the kitchen table for my family.


195. I. There has been opposition by the protestors over the government’s decision of removal of subsidy on fertilizers. II. The government has decided to remove subsidy on some of the items to bring reform to the economy.
a. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
b. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
c. Both statements I and II are independent causes
d. Both statements I and II are the effects of independent cause.

196. Statement: There was a spurt in criminal activities in the city during the recent festival season.

Courses of Action: I. The police should immediately investigate into the causes of this increase. II. In the future the police should take adequate precautions to avoid the recurrence of such situation during festivals. III. The known criminals should be arrested before any such season.
a. Only I and II follow.
b. Only II follows
c. All I, II and III follow.
d. Either I or II follows

197. “Pick the word which is always associated with “”books””.”
a. Pages
b. Learning
c. Pictures
d. Eraser

198. Pick the word which is always associated with: Electrical Energy.
a. Light
b. Cars
c. Power
d. Water

199. Daniyal has been visiting friends in his flat for the past two weeks. He is leaving tomorrow morning and his flight is very early. Most of his friends live fairly close to the airport. Usman lives ten miles away. Farhan lives five miles away, Numan, seven miles. Ali is farther away than Farhan, but closer than Numan.

Approximately how far away from the airport is Ali?
a. Nine miles
b. Seven miles
c. Eight miles
d. Six miles

200. A boy walks 30 meters in the north direction, after that he takes a right turn and walks 40 meters. After that, he takes another right turn and walks 40 meters more, and finally, he took a right turn and stops after walking 40 meters.

Find the distance of The boy from the initial position.
a. 5 m
b. 10 m
c. 15 m
d. 20 m

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